Union Public Service Commission
Combined Defence Services Exam, 2011
(Held on September 2011)
General Knowledge : Fully Solved
( Questions No. 1-40 )
41. Which of the following statements with respect to the judiciary in India is/are correct ?
1. Unlike the United States, India has not provided for a double system of courts.
2. Under the Constitution of India, there is a single integrated system of courts for the Union as well as the states.
3. The organisation of the subordinate judiciary varies slightly from state to state.
Select the correct answer using the code given below –
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 3 only
Ans : (C)
42. Which of the following Committees are Committees of Parliament ?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
Select the correct answer using the code given below –
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)
43. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for a period of –
(A) six years
(B) during the pleasure of the President
(C) for six years or the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
(D) for five years or the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier
Ans : (C)
44. Consider the following statements :
1. In India the minimum denomination coin acceptable for transaction is 50 paise.
2. Coins below 50 paise is not a legal ender for payment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)
45. Which of the following statements about the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network System (CCTNS) is/are correct ?
1. It will facilitate real time access of classified criminal data to the law enforcement authorities.
2. National Crime Record Bureau is the nodal agency mandated to implement the network in all the states.
Select the correct answer using the code given below –
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)
46. Which of the statements given below about the Champaran Satyagraha is/are correct ?
1. It was related to Indigo plantations.
2. It started because the European planters oppressed the Zamindars.
Select the correct answer using the code given below –
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)
47. Consider the following statements about the Ahmedabad Mill Strike of 1918 :
1. It was related to a dispute between the workers and the European mill owners regarding hours of work.
2. Gandhiji advised the workers to go on strike.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (D)
48. Which one among the following statements appropriately defines the term 'drain theory' as propounded by Dadabhai Naoroji in his work 'Poverty and un-British Rule in India'?
(A) That a part of India's national wealth or total annual product was being exported to Britain for which India got no material returns
(B) That the resources of India were being utilised in the interest of Britain
(C) That the British industrialists were being given an opportunity to invest in India under the protection of the imperial power
(D) That the British goods were being imported to India making the country poorer day by day
Ans : (B)
49. Which among the following was the most immediate factor for the spread of Swadeshi and boycott of foreign goods during the first decade of the last century ?
(A) Curzon's design to curtail the sphere of local self-government
(B) Curzon's attempt to control the Universities
(C) Curzon's partition of Bengal
(D) Curzon's plan to curb the growing popularity of the Indian National Congress
Ans : (C)
50. Which of the following statements regarding Permanent Settlement is/are correct?
1. The Permanent Settlement was introduced in parts of the Madras and Bombay Presidencies.
2. The Permanent Settlement created a new class of landlords with hereditary rights on land
3. The landlords created by the Permanent Settlement could never be removed under any circumstance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below –
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)
51. Gandhiji led the Indian nationalist movement from the front and his leadership was motivated by a wider philosophy he nurtured throughout the course of the movement. Which one among the following was a continuous movement based on this philosophy, and not a specific movement?
(A) Non-cooperation Movement (B) Swadeshi Movement
(C) Quit India Movement (D) Civil Disobedience Movement
Ans : (A)
52. The Jainas believe that Jainism is the outcome of the teachings of twenty-four Tirthankaras. In the light of this statement, which one among the following is correct of Vardhamana Mahavira?
(A) He was the first Tirthankara and the founder of Jainism
(B) He was the twenty-third Tirthankara, the first twenty-two Tirthankaras being considered legendary
(C) He was the last and twenty-fourth Tirthankara, who was not considered as the founder of the new faith but as a reformer of the existing religious sect
(D) He was not one of the twenty four Tirthankaras
Ans : (C)
53. The earliest Buddhist literature which deal with the stories of the various birth of Buddha are –
(A) Venaya pitakas (B) Sutta pitakas
(C) Abhidhamma pitakas (D) Jatakas
Ans : (D)
54. Which one among the following is not a characteristic of Rig-Vedic Aryans?
(A) They were acquainted with horses, chariots and the use of bronze
(B) They were acquainted with the use of iron.
(C) They were acquainted with the cow, which formed the most important form of wealth
(D) They were acquainted with the use of copper and the modern ploughshare
Ans : (B)
55. Which one among the following statements about United Nations organs is correct?
(A) Decisions of the General Assembly are binding on all members
(B) The term of the non-permanent members of the Security Council is for three years
(C) International Court of Justice has 20 Judges elected for a period of five years
(D) The Trusteeship Council has been suspended since 1 November, 1994
Ans : (A)
56. Which one among the following statements about South Asia is not correct ?
(A) All the countries in South Asia are currently democracies
(B) SAFTA was signed at the 12th SAARC Summit in Islamabad
(C) The US and China play an influential role in the politics of some South Asian States
(D) Bangladesh and India have agreements on river water sharing and boundary disputes
Ans : (D)
57. Which among the following statements about European Union (EU) are correct ?
1. The EU is the world's largest economy.
2. The EU has its own flag, anthem and currency.
3. The EU's combined armed forces re the second largest in the world.
4. The EU has its own Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below –
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 3 and 4
Ans : (A)
58. Which one among the following is the distinguishing factor between a pressure group and a political party ?
(A) Pressure groups are confined to a few, while political parties involve larger number of people
(B) Pressure groups do not seek active political power, political parties do
(C) Pressure groups do not politically motivate people, while political parties do
(D) Political parties take political stance, while pressure groups do not bother about political issues
Ans : (B)
59. Which one among the following pairs of level of government and legislative power is not correctly matched ?
(A) Central government: Union List
(B) Local government: Residuary powers
(C) State government: State List
(D) Central and State government: Concurrent List
Ans : (B)
60. There are different arguments given in favour of power sharing in a democratic political system. Which one of the following is not one of them ?
(A) It reduces conflict among different communities
(B) Majority community does not impose its will on others
(C) Since all are affected by the policies of the government, they should be consulted in the governance of the country
(D) It speeds up the decision making process and improves the chances of unity of the country
Ans : (B)
61. Which of the following condition/ conditions must be fulfilled by the NRIs to be eligible to vote in elections in India?
1. They must be physically present in their place of origin to exercise their franchise.
2. NRIs whether they have acquired citizenship of other countries or not are eligible to vote.
3. Eligible NRIs have to register by filling up Form 6-A with electoral registration office.
Select the correct answer using the code given below –
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 only (D) 3 only
Ans : (B)
62. Which of the following statements regarding the United Nations Peacekeeping Force is/are correct
1. The first peacekeeping force was sent to Egypt.
2. Peacekeeping force is accountable to the Security Council.
3. First women peacekeeping force was sent by India to Liberia.
Select the correct answer using the code given below –
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only
Ans : (C)
63. The first effort at drafting a Dominion Status Constitution for India was made in response to the –
(A) Minto-Morley Reforms
(B) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms
(C) Simon Commission
(D) First Round Table Conference
Ans : (A)
64. The Kamraj Plan was a plan formulated in 1963 by the then –
(A) Union Cabinet Minister, whereby a new Constitution for the Indian National Congress was proposed
(B) Chief Minister of Madras, whereby the senior ministers were asked to leave government and work to rejuvenate the party
(C) Chief Minister of Madras, whereby a new set of principles for accepting donations for the party work was proposed
(D) Chief Minister of Madras to root out corruption from India
Ans : (B)
65. The Constitution of India divided the states of India in categories A, B, C and D in the year 1950. In this context which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Governor was the executive head of categories C and D states
(B) The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category A states. The, Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories B and C states. The Governor was the executive head of the category D states
(C) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories C and D states
(D) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category B states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of categories C and D states
Ans : (C)
66. The Constituent Assembly of India was chosen on the basis of the provincial elections of 1941. With the withdrawal of the Muslim League from the Constituent Assembly, it turned out that majority of the Assembly members were also members of the Congress. Under that circumstance, how was the Constituent Assembly given a broader social basis ?
(A) By nominating independent members from various minority groups
(B) By nominating independent members from various caste and religious groups
(C) By nominating independent members of different castes, groups and women and also by taking in representatives of the princely states and asking for written submission from the public at large
(D) By taking in representatives of the princely states and asking for written submission from the public at large
Ans : (D)
67. What was the 'privy purse' in the context of the history of Modern India?
(A) A purse given privately by one organization to another
(B) A purse given by the government of India to the dignitaries for service rendered
(C) A grant given by the government of India to the erstwhile Princes of India
(D) A gift given by an erstwhile Princes of India to the government of India
Ans : (C)
68. Which one among the following was not a possible reason for the success of Nadir Shah's military campaign in Delhi ?
(A) Weak Mughal Emperor
(B) Lack of strong defence in the North-West Frontier
(C) Late preparation for the defence of Delhi
(D) U se of superior military technology by the invading army
Ans : (D)
69. Which one among the following was not true about the Kerala king Martanda Varma?
(A) He ruled over Travancore
(B) He subdued the feudatories
(C) He gave heavy bribes to the European officers to maintain peace
(D) He organised a strong modern army
Ans : (C)
70. Which of the following was/were reason/reasons for the success of European trading companies in South India during the 17th Century?
1. The presence of the Mughals in the south was not as much as in the north.
2. The Vijaya Nagar kingdom had been overthrown in the late 16th Century.
3. The south had many small and weak states.
Select the correct answer using the code given below –
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 only
Ans : (C)
71. Which one among the following was a reason for which the French could not succeed in India in the 18th Century ?
(A) They sided with the weak Indian sides such as Chanda Sahib and Muzafar Jang
(B) Dupleix was called back at a crucial time
(C) They conspired against the Indian powers
(D) Their trading company was heavily dependent on the French Government
Ans : (B)
72. Which one of the following was the result of the First Anglo-Maratha War of 1775-82 ?
(A) The British won the war
(B) The Marathas won the war
(C) There was no victory for either side
(D) It helped Hyder Ali to gather strength because the British and Marathas were engaged in a mutual war
Ans : (C)
73. Which one among the following is correct about the Doctrine of Lapse ?
(A) It did not allow the Indian rulers to adopt any heir
(B) It did not allow an adopted heir to rule a state after the death of the ruler
(C) It made the annexation of Indian state compulsory after the death of a ruler
(D) It made the annexation of Indian state compulsory if the adoption of heir had not been approved by the British authorities
Ans : (D)
74. In 1856 Awadh would not have been annexed with the British Empire if the Nawab of Awadh had –
(A) allied with the British
(B) not refused to introduce reforms as suggested by the British
(C) fought against the British
(D) a natural heir
Ans : (A)
75. Which of the statements given below about Vivekananda are correct ?
1. He believed that Vedanta was fully rational.
2. He criticised his countrymen for having lost touch with the outside world.
3. He condemned the caste system.
4. He considered the Veda to be infallible.
Select the correct answer using the code given below –
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 2 only
Ans : (C)
76. Consider the following information arid identify from the code given below the legendary Hollywood actress who is also remembered as a champion for a number of charitable causes, notably the fight against AIDS :
She appeared in more than 50 Films, and won three Oscars including one for her performance in ‘Butterfield 8’ and another for 'Who’s Afraid of Virginia Woolf ?' The London-born actress was a star at age 12, a bride and a divorcee at 18, a screen goddess at 19 and a widow at 26.
Code :
(A) Ingrid Bergman
(B) Elizabeth Taylor
(C) Katharine Hepburn
(D) Nicole Kidman
Ans : (B)
77. Consider the following statements –
1. National Cadet Corps (NCC) is a pre-independence organisation.
2. The motto of NCC is 'Unity and Discipline'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (B)
78. On 15th March 2011, foreign ministers of G-8 nations failed to reach an agreement on military action against Libya because:
1. Germany and Russia blocked flight restrictions sought by Britain and France
2. French attempt for a no-fly zone could not reach consensus
3. United Nations has been non-supportive for any kind of action against Libya
Select the correct answer using the code given below –
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 only
Ans : (B)
79. South Pacific island nation Samoa, positioned to the east of the International Date Line, on May 2011 decided to forego a day and shift to the time zone on its west. The reason for this shifting is to –
(A) facilitate smooth internal administration throughout the country
(B) attain political stability in the country
(C) facilitate trade with Australia and New Zealand
(D) promote tourism industry in the country
Ans : (C)
80. Which of the following changes were brought in Nepal after the end of monarchy?
1. The Singha Durbar (Lion Palace) has become official seat of government of Nepal.
2. Narayanhity Royal Palace has been turned into a public museum.
3. King's portrait in Nepalese banknotes, was replaced by the image of Pashupatinath Temple.
Select the correct answer using the code given below –
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 only
Ans : (B)
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